[2017 Hottest] Most Hottest Cisco CCDP 300-320 Dumps ARCH Exam Study Guide Youtube with Latest Version PDF&VCE

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300-320 dumps

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-320 Dumps Exam Questions – 100% Success Guaranteed

Question No : 18 Which three statements about zoning are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning increases security.
B. DNS queries are used for software zoning.
C. Software zoning is more secure than hardware zoning.
D. When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first.
E. Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.
300-320 exam Answer: A,B,E
Question No : 19 DRAG DROP Drag the IS-IS fast convergence components on the left to the order in which they occur on the right.
300-320 dumps

occurs first – Failure detection time occurs second – Event propagation time occurs third – SFP run time (small form-factor pluggable)occurs fourth – RIB FIB update time
Question No : 20 Which OSPF option can you configure to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone through a nonbackbone area?
A. route summarization
B. a virtual link
C. an NSSA
D. a static OSPF neighbor
300-320 dumps Answer: B
Question No : 21 Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
Answer: B,C
Question No : 22  Why is QoS important for in-band management?
A. It supports remote management when traffic volume is high.
B. It supports proper routing.
C. It supports network security against DoS attacks and worm outbreaks.
D. It supports network redundancy.
300-320 pdf Answer: A
Question No : 23  Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Answer: A,F
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?
A. Data owner
B. Chief Risk Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Designated Approving Authority
300-320 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
Designated Approving Authority (DAA) is also known as the accreditor. Answer: A is incorrect. The data owner (information owner) is usually a member of management, in charge of a specific business unit, and is ultimately responsible for the protection and use of a specific subset of information. Answer: B is incorrect. A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is also known as Chief Risk Management Officer (CRMO). The Chief Risk Officer or Chief Risk Management Officer of a
corporation is the executive accountable for enabling the efficient and effective governance of significant risks, and related opportunities, to a business and its various segments. Risks are commonly categorized as strategic, reputational, operational, financial, or compliance-related. CRO’s are accountable to the Executive Committee and The Board for enabling the business to balance risk and reward. In more complex organizations, they are generally responsible for coordinating the organization’s Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) approach. Answer: C is incorrect. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise responsible for the information technology and computer systems that support enterprise goals. The CIO plays the role of a leader and reports to the chief executive officer, chief operations officer, or chief financial officer. In military organizations, they report to the commanding officer.
QUESTION NO: 25
DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and medium availability?
A. MAC III
B. MAC IV
C. MAC I
D. MAC II
300-320 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
The various MAC levels are as follows: MAC I: It states that the systems have high  availability and high integrity. MAC II: It states that the systems have high integrity and medium availability. MAC III: It states that the systems have basic integrity and availability.
QUESTION NO: 26
Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review in “A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews”. Which of the following heuristics increase the application’s attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language
B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface
C. Code that changes frequently
D. Anonymously accessible code
E. Code that runs by default
F. Code that runs in elevated context
Answer: B,D,E,F
Explanation: Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines the following heuristics for determining code review in “A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews”: Old code: Newer code provides better understanding of software security and has lesser number of vulnerabilities. Older code must be checked deeply. Code that runs by default: It must have high quality, and must be checked deeply than code that does not execute by default. Code that runs by default increases the application’s attack surface. Code that runs in elevated context: It must have higher quality. Code that runs in elevated privileges must be checked deeply and increases the application’s attack surface. Anonymously accessible code: It must be checked deeply than code that only authorized users and administrators can access, and it increases the application’s attack surface. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface: It must be checked deeply for security vulnerabilities and increases the application’s attack surface. Code written in C/C++/assembly language: It is prone to
security vulnerabilities, for example, buffer overruns. Code with a history of security vulnerabilities: It includes additional vulnerabilities except concerted efforts that are required for removing them. Code that handles sensitive data: It must be checked deeply to ensure that data is protected from unintentional disclosure. Complex code: It includes undiscovered errors because it is more difficult to analyze complex code manually and programmatically. Code that changes frequently: It has more security vulnerabilities than code that does not change frequently.

QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following cryptographic system services ensures that information will not be disclosed to any unauthorized person on a local network?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Confidentiality
300-320 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The confidentiality service of a cryptographic system ensures that information will not be disclosed to any unauthorized person on a local network.
QUESTION NO: 28
What are the various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop software requirements.
B. Implement change control procedures.
C. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.
D. Create acquisition strategy.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
The various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition process are as follows: Determine software product or service requirements. Identify associated risks. Develop software requirements. Create acquisition strategy. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan. Define development and use of SwA due diligence questionnaires. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed in the monitoring and acceptance phase of the
Software Assurance acquisition process.
QUESTION NO: 29
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management’s objective  for your project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Historical information
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Quantitative analysis
300-320 pdf Answer: A
Explanation: Qualitative risk analysis is the best answer as it is a fast and low-cost approach to analyze the risk impact and its effect. It can promote certain risks onto risk response planning. Qualitative Risk Analysis uses the likelihood and impact of the identified risks in a fast and cost effective manner. Qualitative Risk Analysis establishes a basis for a focused quantitative analysis or Risk Response Plan by evaluating the precedence of risks with a concern to impact on the project’s scope, cost, schedule, and quality objectives. The qualitative risk analysis is conducted at any point in a project life cycle. The primary goal of qualitative risk analysis is to determine proportion of effect and theoretical response. The inputs to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process are: Organizational process assets Project Scope Statement Risk Management Plan Risk Register Answer: B is incorrect. Historical information can be helpful in the qualitative risk analysis, but it is not the best answer for the question as historical information is not always available (consider new projects). Answer: D is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis is in-depth and often requires a schedule and budget for the analysis. Answer: C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is not a valid answer for risk analysis processes.
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to an object or that a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant Protection Model
B. Biba Integrity Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Access Matrix
Answer: A
Explanation: The take-grant protection model is a formal model used in the field of computer security to establish or disprove the safety of a given computer system that follows specific rules. It shows that for specific systems the question of safety is decidable in linear time, which is in general undecidable. The model represents a system as directed graph, where vertices are either subjects or objects. The edges between them are labeled and the label indicates the rights that the source of the edge has over the destination. Two rights occur in every instance of the model: take and grant. They play a special role in the graph rewriting rules describing admissible changes of the graph. Answer: D is incorrect. The access matrix is a straightforward approach that provides access rights to subjects for objects. Answer: C is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula model deals only with the confidentiality of classified material. It does not address integrity or availability. Answer: B is incorrect. The integrity model was developed as an analog to the Bell-LaPadula confidentiality model and then became more sophisticated to address additional integrity requirements.

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